Danie Brink

FINAL PROJECT - PROOF


From the sketch alongside we can see that:

(AF)(BD)(CE) =(BF)(CD)(AE) for any position inside of triangle ABC.

 

Required to Prove: (AF)(BD)(CE) =(BF)(CD)(AE)

Proof: I am going to try to make this proof more visual that algebraic. Here we go:

By drawing BI // AP and AH // BP we get the following similar triangles:

triangle AFP /// triangle BFI

triangle AFH /// triangle BFP

From these similarities flow the following proportions:

AF / BF = AP / BI ....................(1)

AF / BF = AH / BP ....................(2)

therefore AP / BI = AH / BP ....................(3)

also

AF = (BF)(AP) / BI ....................(4)

AF = (BF)(AH) / BP ....................(5)

 

By drawing BJ // CP and CK // BP we get the following similar triangles:

triangle BDP /// triangle CDK

triangle BDJ /// triangle CDP

From these similarities flow the following proportions:

BD / CD = BP / CK ....................(6)

BD / CD = BJ / CP ....................(7)

therefore BP / CK = BJ / CP ....................(8)

also

BD = (CD)(BP) / CK ....................(9)

BD = (CD)(BJ) / CP ....................(10)

 

By drawing CL // AP and AM // CP we get the following similar triangles:

triangle CEP /// triangle AEM

triangle CEL /// AEP

From these similarities flow the following proportions:

CE / AE = CP / AM ....................(11)

CE / AE = CL / AP ....................(12)

therefore CP / AM = CL / AP ....................(13)

also

CE = (AE)(CP) / AM ....................(14)

CE = (AE)(CL) / AP ....................(15)

 

From the 15 equations above we get

(AF)(BD)(CE) =[(BF)(AP / BI][(CD)(BP) / CK][(AE)(CP) / AM] using equations (4) , (9) and (14)

If we rearrange the righthand side we get

(AF)(BD)(CE) =(BF)(CD)(AE) [ AP / BI ][ BP / CK ][ CP / AM ]

which means that we need to only prove that [ AP / BI ][ BP / CK ][ CP / AM ] = 1 to prove our findings.

from equation (3) we can substitute AP / BI with AH / BP and obtain

[ AP / BI ][ BP / CK ][ CP / AM ] = [ AH / BP ][ BP / CK ][ CP / AM ] = (AH)(CP) / (CK)(AM)

To prove (AH)(CP) / (CK)(AM) = 1 is the last step ....................(16)

From our initial constructions we know that AH // CK which makes triangle AHP /// triangle KCP

therefore AH / CK = HP / CP ....................(17)

If we substitute equation (17) into (16) we get

(AH)(CP) / (CK)(AM) = (HP)(CP) / (CP)(AM) = HP / AM

Lastly, because AH // PM and AM // HP from our constructions, quadrilateral AHPM is a parallelogram.

therefore HP = AM because they are the opposite sides of the parallelogram and that makes HP / AM = 1

Q.E.D

Click here to see an extention of this phenomenon,


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